| 1. Whichis a definition of V2 speed?
Take off safety speed
2. What is the maximum indicated airspeed a reciprocating engine
poweredairplane may be operated within class B airspace?
250
3. Apilot approaching to land a turbine powered aircraft on a runway
served by aVASI shall
Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slopeuntil a lower altitude is
necessary for a safe landing
4. Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required
visualreferences are not acquired, the missed approach should be initiated
upon
Arrival at the DH on the glide slope
5. Whataction should be taken when a pilot is “cleared for approach”
while being radarvectored on an unpublished route?
Remain at last assigned altitude until establishedon a published route segment
6. Ifbeing radar vectored to the final approach course of a published
instrumentapproach that specifies “no PT” the pilot should
Not execute the procedure turn unless specificallycleared to do so by ATC
7. What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an
ILSapproach? The pilot
Mustmaintain the last assigned until established on a published route or
segment ofthe approach with published altitudes
8. When mustthe pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS
approach?
At the DH ifthe visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly
visible oranytime thereafter that visual reference is lost
9. Afterexperiencing two-way radio communications failure en route
whenshould a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach?
Upon arrivalat any initial approach fix for the instrument approach
procedure but notbefore the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC
10. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after havingexperienced
two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin
descent for the instrumentapproach?
A flight plan ETA as amended by ATC
11. Under what conditions may anair carrier pilot continue an instrument
approach to the DH afterreceiving a weather report indicating that less
than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport?
When the weather report is received after the pilothas begun the final
approach segment of the instrument approach
12. What are somecharacteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at
the aft limit?
Lowest stall speed, highestcruise speed, least stability
13. What does the blue radialline on the airspeed indicator of a light twin
engine airplane represent?
Maximum single-engine rate of climb
14. What effect, if any, doesaltitude have on VMC for an airplane with
unsupercharged engines?
Decreases with altitude
15. A definition of the term“viscous hydroplaning” is where?
A film of moisture covers the painted or rubbercoated portion of the runway
16. What is the advantage of a three bar VASI?
B A normal glide angle is afforded both high and lowcockpit aircraft
17.What type information isdisseminated by NOTAM (D)’s?
Status of navigation aids, ILS’s, radar serviceavailable, and other
information essential to planning
18.What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance“cleared
as filed” include?
Destination airport, enroute altitude, and SID, ifappropriate
19. Under what condition does apilot receive a “void time” specified in the
clearance?
On an uncontrolled airport
20. What action should a pilottake if within 3 minutes of a clearance limit,
and further clearance has notbeen received?
Start speed reduction to holding speed inpreparation for holding
21. What report should thepilot make at a clearance limit?
Time and altitude/ flight level arriving or leaving
22. What does the term “minimumfuel” apply to ATC?
Advisory that indicates an emergency situation ispossible should an undue
delay occur
23. Which reports are alwaysrequired when on an IFR approach not in radar
contact?
Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound, andmissed approach
24. While being vectored to thefinal approach course of an IFR approach,
when may the pilot descend to thepublished altitudes?
Only when approach control clears the flightfor the approach
25. A visual reference is lostwhile circling to land from an instrument
approach, what actions should thepilot take?
Make a climbing turn towards the landing runwayuntil established on the
missed approach course
26. Which rule of thumb may beused to approximate the rate of descent
required for a 3° glide path?
5 times ground speed in knots
27. When is the coursedeviation (CDI) considered to have full scale
deflection?
When the CDI deflects from the center of the scaleto full scale left or right
28. When cleared to execute apublished side-step maneuver, at what point is
the pilot expected to commencethis maneuver?
As soon as possible after runway environment isinsight
29. When cleared to execute apublished side-step maneuver for a specific
approach and landing on theparallel runway, at what point is the pilot
expected to commence this maneuver?
As soon as possible after the runway or runwayenvironment is insight
30. How does the SDF differfrom an ILS localizer?
SDF 6° or 12° wide, ILS 3° to 6°
31. How does the LDA differfrom an ILS localizer?
LDA- offset from runway +3°, ILS-aligned with runway
32. What is the lowest cloud inthe stationary group associated with a
mountain wave?
Rotor cloud
33. Which type of clouds areindicative of very strong turbulence?
Standing lenticular
34. What characterizes a groundbased inversion?
Poor visibility
35. What feature is associatedwith a temperature inversion?
A stable layer of air
36. En route at FL270, thealtimeter is set correctly, on descent, a pilot
fails to set the localaltimeter setting of 30.57, if the field elevation is
650 ft., and thealtimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon
landing?
Sea level
37. When can the maximum hazardzone caused by wind shear associated with a
thunderstorm be found?
On all sides and directly under the thunderstormcell
38. What is the feature ofsupercooled water?
The unstable water drop freezes upon striking anexposed object
39. Freezing rain encounteredduring climb is normally evidence that
A layer of warmerair exists above
40. What type of service shouldnormally be expected from an en route flight
advisory service?
Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight,intended route of flight,
and altitude
41. METAR KMAF 131756Z 02020KT12SM BKN025 OVC250 27/18 A3009 RMK RAE 44.
Which weather condition is indicated by this METAR report at Midland(KMAF)?
Rain of unknownintensity ended 16 min. before the hour
42. The prevailing visibilityin the following METAR is
Less than a ¼ SM
43. Isobars on the surfaceweather chart represent lines of equal pressure
Reduced to sealevel
44. A sever thunderstorm is onewhich the surface winds are
50 kts or greaterand or surface hail is ¾ inch or more in diameter
45. What is an importantcharacteristic of wind shear?
It may be associated with either a wind shift or awind speed gradient at any
level in the atmosphere
46. What initial cockpitindications should a pilot be aware of when a head
wind shears to a calm wind?
Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down,and altitude decreases
47. Which condition wouldinitially cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to
increase and the sink rateto decrease?
Sudden increasein a head wind component
48. What initial cockpitindications should a pilot be aware of when a
constant tail wind shears to acalm wind?
Altitude, pitch,and indicated airspeed increase
49. Which flight conditions ofa large jet airplane create the most severe
flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength?
Heavy, slow, gearand flaps up
50. What effect would a lightcrosswind have on the wing tip vortices
generated by a large airplane that hasjust taken off?
The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runwaylonger than the downwind
vortex
51. What effect does alcoholconsumption have on functions of the body?
Alcohol has anadverse effect, especially as altitude increases
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